There are obviously going to be a lot of industrial-era Britain questions arising from the new Assassins Creed game coming out, but my question has to do with another historian's assessment which was recently posted on Kotaku.[1] . Agree, disagree, clarifications? I thought this would be a good way to broach both historiographical issues, like making judgements about how "accurately" we can judge the social climate of a particular time.

P.S. Admittedly, as an undegraduate with majors in history (aiming for modern-era intellectual history in grad school) and philosophy, I found a few thing suspect, like his statement that Marx stuck to to electoral means to attain socialism (presumably Marx must have reneged on the whole "revolutionary overthrow of capitalist property relations" at some point after Kapital and Critique of the Gotha Programme) and that the class struggle was "overstated." Excuse me if I am crass, but I don't think industrial excesses and worries ended with the Second Reform Act just because the franchise was extended. I can't speak to the game's emphasis, since I have not played the game yet, but it seemed completely false to me to say serious class struggle basically ended in 1870.

Are my suspicions valid?

Edit: Forgot the article: http://kotaku.com/what-the-new-assassins-creed-gets-wrong-and-right-ac-1739489922