I'm probably understanding the story of the Maccabean revolt incorrectly, but it seems like it was very specific to the Seleucid empire's socio-political situation, yet its effects somehow reached Ptolemaic Egypt? How did this happen? And if I understand this subject incorrectly, how so?
there wasn't an end to Hellenized Judiaism (in which Jews acted Greek - if I get your definitions). It continues right through the Roman period.
St Paul for example was a Jew with Roman citizenship but culturally he was Hellenized (as were all educated people in the Eastern Roman Empire - and later the Roman empire as a whole).
The Maccabean Revolt has to do with the desire to destroy the Judaism part of the Hellenized Judaism. This came out of trying to unite the very diverse Seleucid holdings in order to fight the coming romans. it didn't work and the empire fell apart - parthians took over in the east. other peoples welcomed in the romans who promised to respect old customs in exchange for loyalty.
following alexander's conques of the persian empire essentially all educated people became greek-cultured (think how english language and anglo-american literature is now world literature).
Ptolemaic Egypt was part of it and so was Seleucid Mesopotamia, jews, like other people transversed these regions - they didn't have hard national borders like today and Judea went back and forth between the two empires but the kings were perfectly happy to hire the best and brightest and so ppl moved as freely as one could in 150BCE. and they brought their culture with them.