This is an abstract question, but I hope it's ok to ask. If this would be better asked on a different subreddit, please let me know. I apologize for the sensitive nature of the question.
I don't think many would contest that whites in the west have tremendous power and advantage, relative to non-whites in the west. Is there any degree to which or sense in which this situation was influenced by past racial philosophy held by whites (particularly during the colonial era) - that whites are in one way or another inherently superior to non-whites?
Or is it possible that the racial philosophy developed in response to the situation in which whites found themselves (in a situation of disproportionate power and wealth)? Did reflecting on their own success and the disparity between themselves and non-whites inform their racial philosophies?
Can both be true?
It's not abstract question, it's a loaded question. Not only you are stating that
I don't think many would contest that whites in the west have tremendous power and advantage, relative to non-whites in the west.
Which is dubious at best, and most likely downright wrong. Let me quote the rules
No "Soapboxing" or Loaded Questions.
This subreddit is called AskHistorians, not LectureHistorians or DebateHistorians. While we appreciate your enthusiasm for the history of issues that play a role in your life, we are here to answer your questions about issues, not provide a sounding board for your theories or a podium for your lectures. All questions must allow a back-and-forth dialogue based on the desire to gain further information, and not be predicated on a false and loaded premise in order to push an agenda.