Why do continue to call some geographic areas the same country even when the previous government was overthrown.

by edoc42

I was thinking about France, China, Japan and Russia after all of their monarchies fell we continue to think of the new government as the new government of an old country while we make a separation between the Byzantine empire and Rome. Why is this?

bukoleon

This is asked frequently, if I understand your question right (an overthrow doesn't factor into it, which you seem to imply). Here's a succinct link from the FAQ that explains it. The Roman/Byzantine split is an arbitrary division.