I get the impression there is still religious/linguistic debate regarding different translations of "death" and "hell" in the Bible, and what they entail. But when did European Christendom settle on the idea of a physical Hell, reserved for burning sinners upon death or the End of Days?

by ColbyStein
Searocksandtrees
hatheaded

You are likely to get knowledgeable and well written answers to this question by crossposting in /r/AcademicBiblical, which is for the scholarly discussion of the Christian holy texts with rules on sourcing and authoritativeness very similar to this excellent sub.