I answered this previously here
When I say 'answered' I mean I explained why we don't know the answer. The theory that it was a general name for a house of ill repute, either originating in the US or the UK, seems plausible enough and there's scant evidence to support any more specific claims.
It's always possible but probably not. If there was it was not not where the original term came from if you believe Alan Lomax. Lomax says that the original name goes back to two traditional English songs that used the term in reference to a party house or whore house. I'm sure you will find those that disagree with him.