Did Hitler have a genuine belief that the Jews were subhuman? Or was everything he did in the name of expanding his own power?
Basically, was Hitler aware of the falsehood of his own propaganda?
The short answer to that is a simple no.
There is no indication that Hitler was being strategically deceptive in his anti-semitism. It is generally accepted within historical academia that there were phases during the Nazis' rule when anti-semitic policy was toned down strategically in order to appeal to an international audience, e.g. during the Berlin Olympics in 1936.
To reiterate: Reading Mein Kampf, his table talks and pretty much every other piece of his writing as well as his speeches, there is no instance that'd suggest that he was not an anti-semite or didn't beleive what he was saying.
Sources:
Ian Kershaw: Hitler, London 2008.
Ian Kershaw: he Nazi Dictatorship. Problems and Perspectives of Interpretation, London, 1985.
Peter Longerich: Hitler. Biographie, Frankfurt a.M. 2015.
Richard J. Evans' four books on the history of the Third Reich.
Edit: left out a no in there, hence the confusion.
I'd like to ask a related question. How much of Hitler's rise to power is considered to be due to purposeful social manipulation and political intelligence rather than circumstance? In other words, was it the situation of Germany that caused him to eventually rule the country, or was it strategy?