I may be in error in assuming the modern Latin alphabet is the same as it was in ancient times, but it seems strange to me that despite all the romance languages, English is the only one to adhere to the traditional Latin alphabet. Is this a fluke, or is there some intrigue here?
I may be in error in assuming the modern Latin alphabet is the same as it was in ancient times
Yes you are. U and V used to be one letter, W is literally a double-U (or double-V). Same with I and J.
Your question would be better formulated as "Why doesn't English use diacritics ?" (diacritics are the "marks" used to modify letters)
try asking /r/linguistics