This question has what you're looking for. https://m.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1llyf7/about_how_much_in_todays_money_was_30_pieces_of/

Concepts like comparative purchasing power don't really work to well over those kind of timescales. Not only do you have the problem of very different goods and services being for sale but not all of those goods and services would have been available for money or in some cases only available for certain types of money. Roman currency is better than many but even there you get some oddities. You might be able to buy your lunch with a barbarous radiate but how acceptable they would be for larger purchases is open to question.

Due to general debasing the bullion value of coins could vary greatly depending on the date of issue . In extreme cases its possible that some plated coins were official issues (this argument comes up with some british celtic coins).