Did the USA, Mexico or any other territory in the Americas pay a compensation to their former colonizer after declaring independence the way Brazil did to Portugal?

by dezassete
thenameoftherows

Haiti was forced to pay reparations to France in exchange for diplomatic recognition (and the removal of the threat of re-invasion). The demand was actually delivered twenty years after independence with a convoy of warships rather than the Brazilian-Portuguese method of agreeing to reparations for lost property during a treaty at the end of the war.

Brazil's relationship with Portugal after independence was very different from the relationship between Spain and its former colonies due to the fact that the new emperor of Brazil was the son of the king of Portugal. After the war, the two countries were very motivated to remain on good terms to terms with each other, and providing reparations to the elites who had lost property during the war was an important part of that process.

kraffcook

thenameoftherows is correct. It's important to note that Brazil's independence wasn't originally intended to be permanent. The King of Portugal allowed it, thinking that when he died, the two thrones would be reunited when his son took over both countries. Anti-Portuguese sentiment in Brazil prevented this, leading to a provision in the Brazilian constitution prohibiting the Emperor from taking any other throne simultaneously. So, the relationship between the countries remained amicable, leading to more interaction and a willingness to compensate.