I know it was socially acceptable at the time for the men to be with little boys, but how was Sporus allowed to be Nero's actual "wife" when the marriage couldn't have given him any heirs? Couldn't he have married a woman and kept Sporus on the side?
I'd challenge that it was socially acceptable. Consider Suetonius on the subject, who places Nero's marriage to Sporus among his crimes between his raping a vestal virgin and a widespread belief that he desired incest with his own mother!
If the marriage to Sporus did indeed happen - and on the subject of overthrown Roman Emperors one must always be wary of propaganda - it was not because it was seen as acceptable. It was something Nero could do not because Romans as a rule approved, but because he was the emperor, and no one who disapproved was in a position to do anything about it at the time.
when the marriage couldn't have given him any heirs?
About that part, it was common for emperors to adopt as a son the adult person they want to see as their heir. So an heir did not have to be a natural child.
Because he was a Julio-Claudian emperor. I would be careful about giving too much credence to the claim though-Nero was heavily vilified after the fact to justify a change in dynasty from the Julio-Claudians. Never again would a family be able to hold onto power just because they were descended from a particularly respected man (Octavian). So the rebelling generals needed to make him look REALLY unworthy to justify their displacement of the family of Augustus with anyone else.