So did nobody in ancient Rome or Greece even question all the pederasty going on? Were there any scholars who believed that it was wrong?

by Illiteratia
The_Manchurian

Paul of Tarsus (and his disciple Timothy) might have done. It's difficult to tell, considering the cultural context of Roman views of homosexuality, whether their criticisms of "sexual immorality" and Roman men's "unnatural lusts" are about the fact that it's two men, or that it happened in the context of pederasty. The common Greek word for homosexual was "pederaste" (although that's not the word Paul uses), and homosexual acts were very much seen in Greece in the context of an older man and younger boy. As you can imagine, due to its relevance in modern religio-social debate, this is extremely contraversial. There are partly contextual arguments, but there are also translation arguments, as Paul used a very unusual word, arsenokoitai. Later Greek writers sometimes use it to refer to pederasty (condemning the Graeco-Roman habit), or sodomy (including men and women together), but it may well be based on the words used in the Old Testament's condemnation of homosexual sex.