Recently I was trying to convince someone that homosexuals and bisexuals are not a modern development, but have always existed (which is an obvious enough statement that I'm not asking it on this forum). I used the example of James I, often claimed to be a bisexual. But how likely is that he actually was bisexual, and not just someone accused of being so?
Historians still argue, about Jacob's sexual preferations. It's true that since begining of his rule he surrounded himself with male favourites, but it was common at courts of XVII century. On the other hand we know that king wrote to one of his favourites George Villiers "I desire to live on this world for your sake" and generally was known of confessing love and affection to his male friends which in these times wasn't necessary indicating sexual conection. We also have to remember that Jacob as a king and anglican was in oposition to the puritan parliament, which very often accused his oponents of homosexuality, lust, greed etc.