*Similar questions posted before, but never got definitive answers.
So I decided to make a series of mostly 18th-century historical fiction stories involving how North America was colonized so much over the majority of the 1700's. It will also involve a lot of alternate history too (But not too alternate! It will stay accurate to the timeline!)
Now here's the part I need help with
I know that the European part of this war was called the Spanish War of Succession. I know that England, Spain, France, Portugal and The Netherlands had their navies battling each other in Europe.
Now to The Big Question, with the answer I really need
If Britain, Spain, and France were able to colonize the Carribean, establish settlements, AND have navies there...did the Portuguese and the Dutch at least send their navies' ships to the West Indies? (around the Islands I mentioned)?
They may not have established any settlements there, I'm assuming, but did they send any ships to fight near these islands?
Why am I asking this? This is a crucial part of my story, with or without it, it will alter the entire plot, so I really need help with this.
I thank anyone so much who is able to answer this.
EDIT: Really need help with this.
It's the War of the Spanish Succession - the order's significant. The April 1713 Treaty of Utrecht ended it between the powers with American colonies: France and Austria remained at loggerheads until the 1714 Treaty of Rastatt, but you can consider the conflict to be 1702-13.
Dutch ships from Curacao traded blows with Spanish privateers from Puerto Rico around the war's middle period, but I don't know if they were navy or West India Company vessels or how far north they ventured, or if it was still going on in the last years when hostilities in Europe were winding down. One would assume that Portugal maintained some naval presence around northern Brazil, but I've found no mention.