Assuming most of pre-1800s human history is so full of misogyny, how were queens ever allowed to rule?

by mikail511
ladyoftexas

Well if you mean misogyny by hatred of women, then no, but if you mean so by women not being treated as equals to men in society then yes, a lot of human history is filled with misogyny against women.

However, that doesn't mean that everyone believed that women were incapable of ruling. In some instances that was the case, in others while males were preferred as rulers, females were allowed. It would depend upon the country and the time period. Basically, just because women weren't seen as equal to men the majority of time, doesn't mean that they could never ever rise to become Queen Regnant.

For instance, in England, Empress Matilda is the heir to the throne and her father Henry I, has his barons swear an oath to her. However, after his death, civil war erupts with her cousin Stephen seizing the throne and leading to what is known as the anarchy. This was in the 12th century, and it isn't until the 16th century that England actually has female rulers and even then the circumstances are the following: An interesting question about Henry VIII who is the father of both Mary I and Elizabeth I is did he believe his daughters weren't capable? Or did he think the country wouldn't accept them? I tend to think the latter, because Henry certainly had no issues with having his wives serve as regents when he left the country. The lack of male heir infamously led to him breaking with Rome and his scandalous conduct with his wives. His first choice was his son Edward VI, but failing that, he did restore his daughters to the line of succession. Both women went on to rule and other Queens followed suit. English society was sexist against women, but it seems in that they were willing to tolerate and even accept female rulers.

In other places such as China, it was much more strict against women and thus the only woman to ever ascend to the throne was Empress Wu Zetian in the 7th century. And she came to the throne by being ruthless.

In some places in Africa, there seems to not have been much restriction or no restriction at all against a woman ruling. Take for instance the ruling Kandakes in Ancient times of Kush. There were several women in this role.

In places such as France, there has never been a ruling Queen. They were barred from ruling the throne period because of Salic law.

So in all, the answer is that it depends. In some places women would have not been allowed to rule, in others while it was still sexist against women, it didn't prevent them from obtaining and ascending to such roles as Queen.