Why are Marinique, French Guiana, Reunion, etc. integral parts of the French Republic today; whilst all other colonial powers have either given up their colonies, or given then significant autonomy?

by yayforhavingpotatoes
uldemir

The question in itself is an argument... did other colonies give up all their colonies. No, not really. You can find both Britain and USA in ownership of a few isles around the world, Falklands and Guam coming to mind right away. The question implies that France is somehow special retaining a few colonies, but it did its share of giving up: in North Africa, Middle East and South East Asia, for example.

I'll refrain from putting forward an opinion vs. the answer, but I still would like to point out that the real exception to the rule here is only Guiana... it's not a small island like other colonies mentioned here, and it's two immediate neighbors did get their independence from England and Netherlands.

EDIT: forgot Spain and Portugal when it came to various owners of Guianas.

davepx

It's partly down to population: while the larger departments could go it alone, none has as many as a million inhabitants, and being French territories offers security and international representation in a powerful state without the costs and uncertainties of independence. New Caledonia (formerly an overseas territory, now a special collectivity with a measure of autonomy) is to have a vote on independence in 2018.