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There's a significant fallacy in your question, in that being literate is not related to being bilingual or multilingual. Plenty of people currently in the world grow up in multilingual contexts and are competent in two or more languages, without necessarily being literate.
For a classical example, educated Romans, generally speaking, were functionally bilingual in Greek. This was a product of an education system that put high value of mastery of the Greek language and literature.
So, no, multilingualism is not a recent phenomenon. Anywhere you get an overlap of two language populations you will generally get some bilingual speakers.
The medieval German knight Oswald von Wolkenstein travelled through the entire known world of the day^1, served as an ambassador, interpreter and soldier, spoke more than seven languages^2 and has been completely illiterate^3.
1: see his poem "durch Barbarei Arabia". We have dug up materials proving he indeed, for instance, served as an ambassador between Ferdinand I. of Aragon and the antipope Benedict XIII. in Avignon, took part in the siege of Ceuta against the moors and received a monthly wage of 300 gulden from the king of Hungary.
2: as he says (and proves) in his "polyglot poem"
3: see "Konnte Oswald von Wolkenstein Lesen und Schreiben" by George Fenwick Jones.
It was pretty common in the past for a number of reasons.