I'd like to point out that your title question and your introduction actually posit two quite separate questions: why did Hitler himself hate the Jews (and others) and why did the populace hate or go along with hatred of Jews (and others).

As for Hitler himself, he held many views about Jewish influence and those changed over time as well. Not in the core sense of course, but it became more radical over time; for example, ideologically, Hitler kind of liked, even admired, the British. Their empire, denoting practical success, combined with the Anglo-Saxon heritage led Hitler to have, initially at least, a romantic view of a continental Europe under German rule, with a strong ally in Britain who ruled their island and their colonies. Yet, as the war progressed, Hitler's view of the British became more and more negative, and as far as I can tell from years of being interested in WW2 in general, so did the accusations of 'Jewish influence'. It's wasn't uncommon for a mid or late war Hitler to fulminate about the 'Jewish influence' on Churchill or Roosevelt.

Now I'm not well-versed in Hitler's own personal motivations, so I'm not the one to give a detailed rundown on his reasons to hate Jews, apart from the observation above that his hatred of particular groups or enemies seemed to increase with his accusations of Jewish influence.

And it's Jewish influence that is so conflated with the USSR and communism/bolshevism that formed the Nazi ideology regarding the USSR and their ideology in general. The notorious Commissar order was in practice also very conflated with the perceived notion of Jewish Bolshevik ideology; sometimes to the extent that just being a Jew meant you would be shot under the pretense that you were a communist/bolshevik agitator.

The picture that has started to emerge to me from years of reading all kinds of 'proper' historians' books on the subject, is that Nazi propaganda very effectively attached "Jews" to the quite practical fear of communism. The communist revolution of 1917 stirred up a lot of shit in Europe and many people were polarized about this new political-economical structure that was now present. What Nazi propaganda and ideology did was equate that bolshevik/communist ideology with Jewish ethnicity/religion/culture. So that a realistic threat or fear became conflated with a people who, realistically, had nothing specifically to do with said political direction.

The partial irony of it is that quite many Jewish households were well integrated within German and European society, having no particular desire for communism whatsoever.

Regardless, the Jewish=Bolshevik narrative was an effective method to 'sell' the campaign of oppression to the general public.

Regarding Hitler's own personal motivations, general anti-semitism in Europe compared to Germany, these are all complicated subjects that merit their own in-depth analyses. This wasn't a particularly well structured post and at best it serves as an introduction for someone to compile a more detailed response, yet I think the idea of (quite falsely) conflating Jews with the realistic threat of bolshevism as an important catalyst to increasing anti-semitism is the main point here that adresses at least part of your question.

As far as sources go, I've been reading and re-reading a lot of Richard Evans' mammoth trilogy the last few months, in addition to just 'compiled remembered stuff' from a wide host of WW2 historians like Kershaw, Conquest and God knows all their names.

hi! this is a very popular topic in this sub; I've rounded up a few previous posts that may be of interest

Some context

• I've read that Hitler blamed jews largely for Germany surrendering WWI. What precisely did he think they did? - /u/DuxBelisarius addresses the "stab in the back" claim

• Why did Hitler adamantly believe in Judeo-Bolshevism when Lenin was not Jewish and there was a lot of anti-semetism in the USSR? - /u/commiespaceinvader addresses the Judeo-Bolshevism claim

• Why did Hitler hate the Jews to the level where mass extermination seemed ideal to him? - a now-deleted account user talks about "parasites"

• Was the antisemitic sentiment in WWII Germany due mostly to Hitler? Or was there already a culture of antisemitism growing beforehand? Was Germany already heading toward a Holocaust, or was it entirely inspired by Hitler? - some immediate context

• even broader context in this FAQ section Jewish Stereotypes and Persecution Throughout History

a closer look at Hitler himself

• Why did Hitler want to remove Jewish people from the world? and more in did hitler ever right out say why he wanted to kill all the jews? - featuring /u/estherke

• Was Hitler an Anti-Semite? - featuring /u/k1990

• What is the evidence that Adolf Hitler disliked Jews? - featuring /u/goblinish

Most of these posts have been archived by now, so if you have questions for any of the users, just ask them here and tag their username to notify them

There's no recorded experience of Hitler having a personally negative experience with a Jew. Common myths in popular discourse have been long debunked in actual historical research-he didn't catch syphilis from a Jewish prostitute or get rejected by a Jewish professor at the Academy.

Hitler himself does not cite one in Mein Kampf, tellingly in my opinion, merely a vague sighting of an Eastern Orthodox Jewish emigrant in inner city Vienna (German Jews by contrast, especially in places like Linz, were among most assimilated in Europe) causing him to "dig deeper". His relationships with Jewish art dealers in his Vienna days were actually quite good. There is also little evidence that Hitler was a genocidal anti-Semite in the trenches, at least at first. Many of his officers were quite surprised at his later rhetoric on Jews(among other things, such as being more accustomed by the early 20s to giving rather than taking orders and generally having a level of self-confidence he never had in 1914). Anti-Semitism was like the rain back then: a few anti-Semitic stereotypes or comments doesn't indicate anything more than somebody being the early 1900s. German nationalism went hand in hand with anti-Semitism, meaning Hitler probably had the commonplace prejudices common of his time as a youth, but this did not effect his relationships with Jews. In truth, Hitler's anti-Semitism was probably quite mild on Viennese standards at the time.

While it's impossible to believe that Hitler was not effected by the most anti-Semitic city in Central Europe, one must keep in mind that Mein Kampf was written with a political intent in mind-Hitler wanted to portray himself as this politically on fire Messiah from his youth on. So, I think it had more than anything to do with the defeat in WWI and the florid association of Jews with Bolshevism. Hitler only recognized his calling in politics in 1919 when he discovered his oratory skills. Munich itself was briefly ruled by a Communist regime: that couldn't have had nothing to do with it. Hitler's personality and his focus in life changed dramatically during the war and its aftermath in general, so this isn't implausible.

Hitler's "dinner table" talk was mainly meant to impress his visitors, usually his superiors by birth and education.