Can anyone explain exactly current scholarship's problems (methodological, philological, etc.) with John Boswell's studies of medieval homosexuality? I'll preface this by saying I'm definitely biased - I read Same-Sex Unions in Premodern Europe about a year ago and thought it was really amazing - but while I know he's sort of misleading/overenthusiastic in some of his translations, some of the scholars I've seen criticizing him (e.g. Warren Johansson and Walter A. Percy) seem to think it's just absurd that medieval homosexuals didn't spend every waking moment being tormented by guilt/shame/the threat of damnation/etc. Has there been any work on medieval sexuality (I'm thinking something around 800-1200) than the stuff I've seen from the 1990s?

In Legal Origins by Glaeser and Shleifer (2002), they give an economic argument on how France had wars on its soil during 22% of the years in between 1100-1800, whereas England only had 6% of the times (p. 1208). One of the reasons Glaeser and Shleifer give is because central power in France had smaller power compared to more local/regional authorities, whereas the English was more of the opposite case. How true is this from the perspective of historian literature?