Did British conceptions of sexuality, gender and gender roles spread through colonial governments? If so, how?

by vertexoflife
TRB1783

Yes, certainly. One of the most prominent examples was New York. Under Dutch law, women could inherit property and money. In English law, women's property became their husband's property in the event of marriage. After the British took over the colony, they went about imposing English law, but found significant resistance and complication when it came to women and property. Eventually, a compromise was reached: women could retain ownership of any property directly bequeathed to them, even after marriage.

I wish I could recall any books about this, or give any kind of details about how this compromise law came to be (note the scads of passive voice). Still, hopefully this is a good lead.