I'm a little confused. By "it's owner," do you mean the noble who ruled over the region or the owner of an individual property or house that was robbed? For that matter, what country or period within the Middle Ages?

"Medieval village" could refer to an English farmstead in 600 or an Ottoman timar on the eve of the Protestant Reformation. You're probably going to want to be a bit more specific.

That said, permanent villages of any appreciable sizes would have had a permanent village leader in residence. These people would have one of what seems like a thousand different titles depending on place and time. Some of the more established villages might have a proper manor, including a resident lord and his retinue (which would include his own household soldiers). Smaller and poorer villages might only have a tenant-in-chief who may not have had much in the way of law enforcement at his disposal. If they didn't have the means to deal with an issue, they'd kick it up the food chain. And if they did, they might still complain about it anyway. Why risk your own soldiers when you could try and get your liege, who was theoretically responsible for this kind of thing, to deal with it for you?

Of course, when the "bandits" are actually rogue gentry imposing illegal or exorbitant taxes (see: robber barons), this whole issue gets a little murkier.