Okay, so I have read that Spain was under an admittedly fascist governmental rule from 1936 until the early 70s. My question is, how come they didn't join the Axis powers, when their ruling style was closer to that of Hitler, Mussolini, etc.?
I've heard 3 theories, and I'm wondering if any, or all have credence.
- Spain's leader (Franco, Francisco?) refused to subscribe to the anti-Semitic mindset that Hitler & Stalin imposed (this one seems strange, because I'm honestly having trouble believing that a fascist government wouldn't persecute the Jewish population in order to make powerful allies).
- They didn't believe that the Axis would've won (this one seems odd to me as well, because prior to the US/USSR joining in, wouldn't it seem like the Axis were going to emerge victorious?).
- This one seems the most plausible to me personally: They just weren't stable enough to fight the French/British/etc., as a result of their civil war.
If there are other theories that are more valid, please do include those; and if any of these are completely inaccurate theories, please do explain why!