Suppose I'm an English (white, male, Christian) land owner living at some point between 1066 and today. When is the earliest point in time I’d be given the opportunity to vote on anything concerning government or law (either at a local or national level)?

by grapp

I don’t mean when was the first general election for parliament held? I mean when was the first time non politicians were given an opportunity to vote on anything concerning how they were ruled?

HrolftheGanger

Well the English along with the Scandinavian peoples had a hierarchical system of assemblies ranging from the smallest, the mot, to the largest, the witnegemot. As a land owner, and therefore a free man you'd have the right to participate in your local assemblies which were mostly used for legal proceedings, but also would discuss policy questions. Before 1066 and then until around 1176 when Henry II formalized royal authority over all assemblies you'd have been able to decide how your village, and even country operated legally as a community. The Witnegemot was a similar procedure but it's participants were the king, the barons, the earls, the bishops, and the archbishops. However, these leading men would also being their retainers and men who'd sworn fealty to them, both to show their power and to offer support in the proceedings. The Anglo-Saxon Chronicle has a lot to say about these assemblies, and it states that the high assembly's purpose was to ensure that the state was moving in a direction all its people, represented by the lords and clergy, agreed with. As Henry II increased his unilateral authority, however, these assemblies became less powerful. In 1215 Magna Carta was a major push back against the centralized authority John inherited from his father, Henry, and it was in the decades following that Parliament emerged as a more formalized, and much more powerful evolution of the witnegemot.

Hope this helps!