Might I suggest reading Jan de Vries's The Industrious Revolution: Consumer Demand and Household Economy, 1650 to the Present (2009). There's a lot of his assertions that I sincerely disagree with, but he brings up a good point relating to your question.

de Vries says that much of what we now see as complimentary items, such as coffee with cream and sugar, were part of a growing consumer economy during the early modern period (pp. 155-158, roughly). When tea and coffee became popular in Europe, Europeans modified them to suit their tastes. This started a process whereby tea was no longer, and coffee no longer coffee, but part of a group of consumer desires including cream, sugar, cups, etc.

I know it's not the super direct answer you were looking for, but I hope it's informative.