In most colonized nations they speak the mother countries language even if it is not the primary language but with enough time it becomes the primary language. How come this never remotely happened for the Philippines even though the Spanish had invaded for over 400 years?

by TheLawWillRize

I know this is not true for all countries but English and native Americans is just an example.

lolikipz

It did, Spanish was the lingua franca for the Philippines until the end of the 19th Century. During the American administration of the Philippines after its cession by Spain in the late 19th Century after the American-Spanish War, and then the follow-up Philippine-American War, which established United States control over the islands, meant that English became the new lingua franca and administrative language (along with a host of other changes, like the disestablishment of the Catholic church as the state church etc). And so Spanish fell by the wayside as the American administration, much like French colonial administrative models, was very assimilative in nature.

Thus, English is an official language of the Philippines, along with Filipino/Tagalog and not Spanish, although Spanish and Arabic are encouraged in areas where they persist officially today.

So in summary, because America's period of colonisation (from 1898 until 1946) superseded the Spanish one.

Searocksandtrees

Hi! Additional input is welcome here, but there have been a few answers in the past you may be interested in

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