I know this is not true for all countries but English and native Americans is just an example.
It did, Spanish was the lingua franca for the Philippines until the end of the 19th Century. During the American administration of the Philippines after its cession by Spain in the late 19th Century after the American-Spanish War, and then the follow-up Philippine-American War, which established United States control over the islands, meant that English became the new lingua franca and administrative language (along with a host of other changes, like the disestablishment of the Catholic church as the state church etc). And so Spanish fell by the wayside as the American administration, much like French colonial administrative models, was very assimilative in nature.
Thus, English is an official language of the Philippines, along with Filipino/Tagalog and not Spanish, although Spanish and Arabic are encouraged in areas where they persist officially today.
So in summary, because America's period of colonisation (from 1898 until 1946) superseded the Spanish one.
Hi! Additional input is welcome here, but there have been a few answers in the past you may be interested in
How come most former Spanish colonies in South America and the Caribbean end up speaking Spanish but the colony of the Philippines ended up with its native language? - /u/400-Rabbits points out geographic isolation from Spain and a small resident Spanish population
Why did the Spanish language die in the Philippines? - /u/khosikulu cites the small Spanish-speaking population and diminishing prestige value of the language; /u/hallenbeckjoe adds that American administration was quick to introduce English education; /u/srtcruz factors in cultural losses during WWII
How come the Spanish language is so prolific in the former Spanish American colonies but not in the Asian colony of the Philippines? - /u/bargaho adds a different approach to language by early missionaries
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