How come Hitler managed to become so powerful in Germany without any other European country interfering?

by itobruno

Did France or UK or anyone realize that Hitler was a threat before WWII? Why didn't they interfere before it was too late?

marisacoulter

Other countries did realize, eventually. The Evian conference in 1938 was designed to stop Hitler. Chamberlin, PM of the UK, and other leaders made a deal letting him keep the Sudetenland that he had seized from Czechoslovakia, in exchange for the promise there would be no further seizing territories/wars. This is known as appeasement. So this would be one example of other countries interfering, using diplomacy. The next example of other countries interfering would be declaring war on Germany. In particular, the Soviet Union certainly did see the danger, and encouraged others to take Hitler seriously. This was likely because once of the first things he did was attack German Communists. He also made a ton of speeches bashing Communism, and Bolshevism - meaning specifically Russian/Soviet communism. So they understood they would be a target of German aggression, should the country ever get aggressive. There was lots of propaganda to this effect in the USSR about the dangers of Germany, before the Molotov-Ribbentrop pact was signed in August 1939. But I think the most relevant answer to the question might be to ask in return: What kind of interference would you expect one sovereign nation to carry out? And when should they have done something? At what point was it not too late, and when did it cross over and suddenly become too late? Looking back, knowing what comes next, it can seem obvious that someone should have done something about Hitler, but what that "something" was it more difficult to identify.