Has any country ever lived under a Christian bible version of sharia?

by irishmickguard

If not, why not?

azdac7

If you mean Christian religious law then yes. It's called canon law. For all of the medieval period there were certain cases that were dealt with by the church using church law rather than secular law, things marriage, heresy, inheritance and things involving the church and church property, about one third of the land in Europe. This caused real tensions because certain groups would evade the King's justice by seeking a trial in a more lenient/open to bribery ecclesiastical court and this caused a lot of tension because the authorities were not keen on criminals getting off. However, there was always a church/secular law distinction, unlike sharia as I understand it where the basis of all law is Koranic.