This may seen like a silly question but it popped into my head before bed. It just seemed interesting that Greek men and women would be subservient to the Greek gods which had both male and female deities and yet they did not give woman the right to vote ( even if there are woman gods who are above mortal man). Surely there would be at some point a story of a female goddess intervening on the behalf of women. Or was it simply there were cultural expectations where it was the place for women to vote and even the 'gods' knew this and kept it so.
Sorry is it is a little wordy it's late and I'm really tired.
The answer to your question, which is a perfectly reasonable one, is that the Greeks did not see 'what is true for deities' as reflecting on 'what is true for human beings'. Humans and Gods shared visual forms, but Gods were still considered another order of beings altogether, conclusions as to female Gods were not considered conclusions involving female human beings, and indeed vice versa on many other issues. The humanising tendency in Greek myth, of not only giving Gods distinct personalities but also of making their personalities human-like, is a relatively late development in Greek myth, really from the Hellenistic era onwards, and doesn't really play a role in the stories that we most commonly associate with the Greek gods, most of which come from the Archaic era or Ovid's transcription/adaptation of early Greek myths.
In other words, what's true for female deities ain't true for female humans, and because of how Greeks understood humans and Gods to fundamentally differ this didn't seem contradictory to them.