In the era of imperialism, did the natives of the colonies have the same status as the citizens of thw colonising power?

by dirtylundry
bobboboran

I think this was the core issue that led to the American Revolution. The American colonies were originally self-governing internally, but the King (and Parliament) in England had powers governing external trade. The American colonists considered themselves to have the full rights of Englishmen. Also, the English Aristocratic class effectively did not transplant itself to the American colonies, enabling the American colonists to maintain, for the most art, a semblance of social equality.

This is not the model that was followed by other European colonists of the Americas, like Spain and Portugal. Spain and Portugal maintained a largely Feudal social structure which meant that individuals born in the colonial provinces (Creoles in Mexico for instance) were not given the same status as individuals born in the Mother Country.

In the 1760's the English Parliament passed a series of internal taxes (not trade-related) upon the American colonies in order to recoup expenses that had been incurred in fighting the French and Indian War. This was a break with precedent in that previously the internal taxes paid by the colonies were ones that had been self-assessed by the colonies themselves. Effectively, the colonials felt that the English Parliament had negated their rights that had been in place from the founding of the 13 colonies.

  • Primary source: Alexis De Tocqueville, "Democracy In America"