Given that the Roman Empire owned Northern Africa and the Middle East for quite a long time, why do those areas today not speak a Romance language like most other former Roman provinces?

by Lynx_Rufus

Further, how was Greek able to survive so well in Greece and Anatolia after centuries of Latin domination?

YUNoDie

To your second question, Greek had already been the lingua franca in the Near East since Alexander's conquests. By Roman times it was the language of philosophy and learning and so thrived in the Roman world, much as Latin did among Early Modern Intellectuals. After the Roman Empire was divided in 395, the Eastern half adopted Greek as the the language of governance.

MaltyBeverage

we need to look where Latin was spoken. Romans themselves spoke latin but not everyone in roman empire spoke latin and other areas other languages were used. Where latin was widely spoken is now where people speak romance languages, with some exceptions. Areas where Latin wasn't as prevelant spoke something else after collapse. Please see this map

http://peterkirby.com/wp-content/uploads/2013/10/latingreek.gif

https://books.google.com/books?hl=en&lr=&id=bZ86AAAAQBAJ&oi=fnd&pg=PA77&dq=Latin+gaul&ots=XczHMseFRg&sig=UX_XQHqmcuZ0C3AOQcbxz36wHqI#v=onepage&q=Latin%20gaul&f=false

http://www.jstor.org/stable/294470?seq=1#page_scan_tab_contents

Rochette, "Language Policies in the Roman Republic and Empire," p. 550; Stefan Zimmer, "Indo-European," in Celtic Culture: A Historical Encyclopedia (ABC-Clio, 2006), p. 961; Leonard A. Curchin, "Literacy in the Roman Provinces: Qualitative and Quantitative Data from Central Spain," American Journal of Philology 116.3 (1995), p. 464.

Herman, Vulgar Latin, p. 12.

Miles, "Communicating Culture, Identity, and Power," p. 58.