Why does the ethnonym 'Saxon' seem to persist in continental Europe after the migrations to Britain, but those of the 'Angles' or 'Jutes' do not?

by [deleted]

I'm aware there's a controversy over the extent to which 'Angles', 'Saxons' and 'Jutes' refers to really existing ethnic groups at the times of the migrations, or whether they were inventions of later chroniclers like Bede. However regardless of which interpretation is correct, there's still the question as to what's different about 'Saxon' compared to the other two in that there were Saxon kingdoms after the migrations but no Angle of Jute ones. All I'm aware of remaining on continental Europe is 'Jutland' and 'Angeln', but no actual people.

Chemastery

I believe we know nothing at all about the Jutes, where they came from and who they were. Jutland is not derived from the ethonym Jute, it is of much later derivation. Bede is the only reference to Jutes at all as Jutes, although groups with similar names existed. I think one would have to be very careful when thinking about htis as three different groups rather than either as one movement of allied peoples, or as a large number of different peoples who were simplified into three groups.