Just to clarify, I am not attempting to imply that slavery shouldn't have been abolished in these states. I am inquiring about whether the North engaging the South in a Civil War was justified considering how their original motive was to keep the union together? How is this case, considering the Union's attempt was mainly to quash a rebellion, different than Great Britain's attempt to keep the American colonies as their colonies after they tried to rebel? I could be misinformed, but from what I know: the south did not feel as if they were being represented in the Federal government anymore; therefore, they seceded in order to have control once again. Furthermore, I could be wrong but slavery did not seem to become an issue until the North used the idea that they were fighting evil, the establishment of slavery, to gain support from foreign nations.

Sorry if this is not the normal format of an /r/AskHistorians question, it is my first time on the subreddit.