I get that the US was top dog and thus dismissed most British war plans in favour of the American ones. The one notable exception being the invasion of Italy if I'm not mistaken. However? By 1943/44, wasn't it pretty obvious that tensions between East and West were starting to happen?

The whole invasion of France was to stop the USSR from "gaining" mtoo much territory. Why then did the US not decide to follow through with Churchill's plan to invade via Greece so as to stop the communist sphere of influence in that part of Europe? I know we have the benefit of hindsight but in the end all they did was make their job harder for the Cold War.

So I guess does is all boil down to the US wanting to show the USSR it was the main western power, or did Roosevelt really honestly believe he was going to get Stalin to release territories under Soviet influence/power? I feel both Stalin and Churchill knew what was up(the whole percentages agreement) whereas Roosevelt was simply naive in believing he could tame the Soviet leader.

The USSR had already shown prior to the German invasion that it was only interested in gaining a foothold in Europe and thus spreading communism(The invasion of Finland and the partition of Poland immediately come to mind).

Thanks for reading