Why was Corsica retained by France following the Napoleonic Wars?

by Snigaroo

I know a little about the period leading up to the Napoleonic Wars and a fair bit about the Wars themselves, but I've rarely studied the actual peace process, and this issue sticks out like a sore thumb.

It seems to me that, in the immediate aftermath of Napoleon, leaving Corsica--his birthplace--in the hands of the French state would not have appeared wise. This is on top of the existence of Genoa at the time (to be integrated into Sardinia-Piedmont, but whatever), which had reasonable claims on the island dating back, at the most recent, to late in the reign of Louis XV. So... why didn't it go to them? Or, failing that, why wasn't it granted to Sardinia-Piedmont, given that they did control the adjacent island and could, in a way, be seen as the successors to Genoa's claim?

Was it that the participants of the Congress were unconcerned that Corsica was Napoleon's home island? Were there concerns about the balance-of-power (I find that unlikely from just a single island, but I suppose it's possible)? Were there prestige issues associated with divesting from France a territory which was gained during the reign of a Bourbon King?

DonaldFDraper

Effectively Corsica was purchased by France from Genoa in 1768 and it's citizens effective made French. As a result it was a part of the Kingdom of France's territory before 1789 and thus subject to the territorial overhauls at the Congress of Vienna.

The point of the Congress was effectively to undo the events of the Revolution and try to create a Europe that will not fall apart again. French boundries were to go to the 1792 boundry before Napoleon returned and then went to the original 1789 boundaries. All was to return to "normal".