Diarmaid MacCulloch writes in his book "Christianity" that in the 13th century, "A knowledge of Latin would be enough to make one understood by everyone who mattered in society from Stockholm to Seville. When did this cease to be the case, especially among the upper classes?

by Illini2011

I'm sure the answer will be different from different reasons, but was there a period of time when the power of Latin waned drastically? Is there a particular reason French then succeeded Latin as the language of diplomacy?

Bakuraptor

So, this is a slightly exaggerated claim from MacCulloch, in that - especially in the secular aristocracy - literacy and proficiency in Latin was common but not universal; see, for example, the tendency to illiteracy in the early Norman and Angevin kings. But on a wider scale the point he makes is a good one - that Latin as a shared language of devotion enabled it to work well as a Lingua Franca for much of the medieval world's rulers.

On the same note, a convincing case could be made that Latin lost its pre-eminent position in the 16th century. The emphasis of the Reformation in worship being carried out in the language of the worshipper and its concomitant translation of the bible - while the humanist movement prompted a significant program of translation with regards to classical works - served to diminish the importance of Latin as a language, although it remained a significant aspect of most education (as a read rather than spoken language).