"The idea of Europe as “Christian” or perhaps “post-Christian” is a construct that can only be carried out by applying very large scissors to the history books." How much truth is in this statement?

by diporasidi

It's a commentary by Juan Cole. Although most of what he said in the article is interesting, I'm a bit dazzled with this specific statement.

I know Christianity's origin is not in the Europe (or as he said, Christian nativism in Europe makes no sense). But does that mean there was no "Christian Europe"? And that we are not experiencing a "post-Christian Europe"?

I mean wasn't "Christianizing Europe" a long process that was a really big thing from late antiquity to modernity?

youngmarshall

His point is that at no point in history has all of Europe been Christian, which it hasn't. From 711- onwards there was always been muslim governed areas of Europe. Muslim spain hung on until 1492. Constantinople has been ruled by muslims since 1453 and there's Cyprus, Crete, Sicily, the Crimea and Steppes, Albania etc in the mean time.

And prior to 711, huge areas of Europe was pagan obviously.

So he's right that Europe has never been entirely ruled by Christian or atheist rulers, ever.