Now this is going to be a bit more of a broad and (probably not) less dumb of question than that, but I have always been boggled by how historians worked before books were widely available. Maybe I am overestimating how much you need books to learn things or how much effort you need to write one by hand, but I look at my textbooks and it just boggles me how anyone would be able to be well-read in ancient Greek and Roman history, or learning the finer points of another language in the 1100's when books were a hand-copying affair that took an extremely large amount of effort. It also boggles me how historians worked back in the medieval and ancient era, simply because I might be overestimating how difficult research was back then.
So make me feel dumb/pampered r/AskHistorians, because I know this probably is a stupid question.
First off, there are no stupid questions on AskHistorians. Don't feel bad about trying to remedy a gap in your knowledge!
Second off, the answer to your question -- not to be glib -- is that they read books! Our wonderful medievalist /u/sunagainstgold has written about literacy before the printing press many times; although they are currently wrapped up in a conference paper, I'm pinging them in case they can answer later.
You may be interested in these previous threads on the press and the spread of books:
And here are some other threads on the press:
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3do6bj/how_disruptive_was_the_printing_press_to_the/
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3qzc8v/how_did_people_learn_about_laws_before_the/