Why does only Britain use a FPTP voting system in comparison to the rest of Europe?

by TotallyMachiavelli
PlusGoody

PR systems are only meaningful with organized political parties. The House of Commons is hundreds of years older than political parties in the modern sense, but once parties arose FPTP automatically fostered a two (dominant) party system for whom any move to PR was contrary to self-interest. The constitutional provisions for lower parliamentary houses on the Continent are all far younger.