Did the populations of southern states technically rise after the end of the American Civil War when the 3/5 Compromise no longer applied? Did that mean southern states suddenly had more representation in congress?

by [deleted]

[deleted]

DataSetMatch

No, the 3/5 compromise was used to count how many delegates each state was given, not to count literal population. In order to figure 3/5, a total count of the population of slaves was necessary.

After the 13th Amendment ended the 3/5 clause, and every person (except Indians) was counted for representation, the Southern states gained delegates. After the Reconstruction Era and the rise of the Jim Crow South, Southern whites held more power than the Antebellum South had, since black people were effectively disenfranchised but were still counted equal.