Did Hitler really convince Germany to support war purely by swaying hate towards Jews?

by [deleted]

Hey guys, thanks for any help in advance.

I was just wondering, it seems like such a far-fetched thought to think that Hitler was able to convince the majority of the nation and military to be supportive of the war purely based off of negative views of Jews?

Were there any other reasons for the national/military support? Was there already a negative stigma of Jews?

This_Is_The_End
  1. The NSDAP had never a direct majority in the parliament. Hitler gained his absolute power by getting an state of emergency supported by conservatives.
  2. He shared his antagonism against the treaty of Versailles with most Germans, but this doesn't included necessary a support for war.
  3. Some German military planned already a retaliation for Versailles since 1918. Hitler wasn't the single evil bastard overshadowing Germany. He could act, because he had support from nationalists and conservatives.
  4. Antisemitism was wide spread at least since the 18th century, but not necessary a reason to support war.
  5. In the beginning the support for war wasn't high, because most adults remembered the consequences of starvation and hyperinflation. It changed with the success in France.
  6. This government ruled with ruthless power and avoiding to be drafted or do open opposition was impossible.

So Hitler isn't a single evil head. He was able to rule because it's enough when a party is getting enough support and it isn't necessary a majority. The reduction of this time period to the person of Hitler is not very wise.