As a related question, to what extent did the Arab League's actions create the Palestinian crisis?

When are you supposing that Jordan or Egypt should have given them independence?

Take into account the timeline of rulings and events, which brings up the question of when Jordan or Egypt could have established any independence.

Prior to WWI, "Palestine" was under Ottoman rule, and subsequently because of WWI, the Ottoman Empire collapsed. After its collapse, Palestine came to be ruled by Britain.

Amidst all of this and many other things, after WWII, Britain withdrew from "Mandatory Palestine" and directed matters to the United Nations. The U.N. then carved up the famous 1947 United Nations Partition Plan which, right before Britain withdrew completely, initiated Israel to declare their statehood on May 14, 1948. As a result of this declaration and the Arab League's denying the Partition Plan, countries of the Arab League (Saudi Arabia, Iraq, Syria, Jordan, Egypt, and Lebanon) initiated a war against "Israel" the day after, which Israel won.

Because Israel had won, they not only controlled the original Partition Plan's land designated for Israel, but also came to control many areas designated for the Palestinians. Other areas designated for the Palestinians were also taken by Jordan and Egypt (Jordan annexed the West Bank; Egypt assumed control of Gaza).

Jordan's annexation of the West Bank altered its ethnic makeup by and large, and doubled Jordan's population. The Arab League opposed this annexation and deemed it illegal, while it was supported by Western countries.