I'm not entirely sure if this is the right place to ask this question but this idea is something I am exploring across The Tempest (1611), Strange Case of Dr Jekyll and Mr Hyde (1886), The Dark Knight (2008) and V for Vendetta (set in 2038.) I'm exploring how good and evil is represented in each text/movie, and why they are represented that way. For example many believe the tyranny of Prospero to Caliban is symbolic of European colonialism in The Tempest, while in Jekyll and Hyde this is context from SparkNotes about why characters are written a certain way.

'In its narrative of a respectable doctor who transforms himself into a savage murderer, Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde tapped directly into the anxieties of Stevenson’s age. The Victorian era, named for Queen Victoria, who ruled England for most of the nineteenth century, was a time of unprecedented technological progress and an age in which European nations carved up the world with their empires. By the end of the century, however, many people were beginning to call into question the ideals of progress and civilization that had defined the era, and a growing sense of pessimism and decline pervaded artistic circles. Many felt that the end of the century was also witnessing a twilight of Western culture.'

How and why has the perception of good and evil changed over time? Is it a product of its society or innate human morals?

(If this isn't the right place to post this could someone point me to the right sub please?)