It's unlikely, but only because Shakespeare's locution wasn't customary in his time, but peculiar even then (source: any introduction to a recent edition of a Shakespeare work).

If you were to switch this question to some other author of the same period, though, I'm not sure.

Edit: I also want to challenge the claim that we can understand texts from 1816 with relative ease. Academics can, but can most English speakers really deal with the crazy punctuation, tortuously long sentences, and GRE-level vocabulary?