Is the English/Scottish divide traceable all the way back to the Roman occupation of Britain?

by Sierrajeff

Roughly speaking, Roman Britain corresponds to England, and unconquered Britain corresponds to Scotland (and Wales), with Hadrian's Wall proximate to the dividing linen between England and Scotland to this day (though granted, that border has moved back and forth a bit over time).

Can one posit that the current divisions and distinctions between England and Scotland go all the way back to this Roman high-water mark? Did the mere fact of having a border in that location for such a long period of time, and/or the Romanization of natives south of Hadrian's Wall, create such a distinct culture and hence "otherness" to the people on the other side that we still feel the ramifications?

I recognize that a lot has happened in the intervening centuries since the Roman occupation of Britain - immigration of Angles, Saxons, Jutes, Danes, Normans, etc. Yet it seems as though there's always been a boundary of nationalities at about this location, so I'm curious whether there's a connection, or if instead it's merely a correlation.

realnfh

Please remember to keep all comments relevant to the question posted by citing credible sources. Merely anecdotal evidence does not constitute a proper source. Also comments grossly off topic will not be accepted.

Galaxy_b

I have an add on question, if that is permitted. Is it true, that both parts were distinct even before Romans invaded, with England inhabited by celts, but Scotland and Wales by earlier, none Celtic tribes?