What is the general difference between the original Germanic Saxons from Denmark prior to the 5th century AD, and the Vikings? I believe the Saxons and the Angles both co-inhabited Denmark before they invaded the Roman-abandoned British lands. I also believe that the Vikings, also a Germanic people, inhabited Denmark as well. It is a fact that not all Saxons left for England. In fact, the majority remained in Denmark. Understanding this, did the Germanic Saxons and the Vikings coexist in the same country? Did one beget the other? If they both supposedly originated from the same place, how did they come to be completely different peoples?
The migration period after the delusion of the Roman Empire set in motion a lot of migration of both settlers and raiding armies. And some from modern day Schleswig-Holstein and Niedersachsen ie Angels and Saxons did end up in England. These Germanic people did not originate in modern day Denmark, even though a small number of Jutes from Western Denmark most likely settled in England in the period, even though the archaeological evidence is quite slim.
The Vikings belongs to the Viking age, starting around a couple of centuries later. The word "Viking" is a verb, ie. to go viking (raiding) it was not a name of an entire group of people. This legacy of misusing the word "viking" is due to national romantics much later.
So the short answer is, that the Anglo-Saxon migration and the Viking Age are to different and separate periods, and for this reason the question of interaction between them does not make much sense.