If the American Northeast is called New England, why isn't the Midwest called New France and the Southwest New Spain?

by obamaramadingdong2
_TheConsumer_

Those areas were known as New Spain and New France, respectively. Of the three, only New England retained its name.

Much of the answer lies in the fact that of the three, only England made a serious, concerted effort to colonize its new territory. As a result, the English way of life and system of governance was apparent in all of the 13 colonies.

But New France and New Spain lacked such a concerted effort in America. Yes, there were missions and trade centers - but nothing was on the size or scale of what England was doing on the eastern seaboard. England had full fledged cities, with sizable populations and governing bodies across the coast. France and Spain had outposts with ragtag teams of men patrolling and keeping order.

As a result, there was very little connecting New Spain and New France to their motherlands. The only tangible connection was the fact that the areas were first discovered by their respective powers. So, the first real (extensive) European settlement came from settlers streaming in from the United States.

An interesting side note: the areas that did have major trading posts for France and Spain do retain their cultural ties. This can be seen in dozens of outposts in the southwest with a distinctive Spanish flair and Louisiana - with its world renowned French Quarter. There are also a handful of small locales that claim French ancestry across the Midwest and in/around Illinois. They have retained the language and can be considered ethnic enclaves.

But, the lack of full scale colonization by both France and Spain more or less ensured that their cultures would be swallowed whole by the waves of "Americans" settling their lands.

NeilWiltshire

TheConsumer's last sentence: "the lack of full scale colonization by both France and Spain more or less ensured that their cultures would be swallowed whole by the waves of "Americans" settling their lands."

Roughly covers it, but its also worth pointing out that France and Spain at various times did try to colonise their part of North America and they had some success, however, the English contingent won out in the end through various means. War and Economy. The British colonisation succeeded where other didn't because they created a working and nearly self sufficient economy in the new colonies (save mostly for the requirement to continually ship in new people to keep the population up, be they free or slave population being shipped in). French colonies were heavily propped up by France and seemed to ctry and conquer huge swaithes of land without really settling which meant they didn't really have the population to win any war against the British. Spain's emphasis seemed to be on missionary - convert the locals, rather than truly settling and expanding. So eventually the Brits won out.

And lets not forget that while there aren't regions called New France or New Spain today, there are very many towns and cities that have Spanish or French names left over from these times. Some examples are San Antonio, New Orleans, and hell, even the state of Louisiana. Louisiana was named such after King Louis of France. So this in effect is "New France" Of course at the time Louisiana covered about a 3rd of the continent, in land from the British colonies and up to about the Rockies. Jefferson famously purchased Louisiana from Napolean early in the 19th century, doubling the size of the US and eventually the territory was reorganised, shuffled and divided into smaller states and so modern Louisiana is much smaller than it used to be.