I know of the Invasions, and I know of the expansions but why has there been the repeated taking of the Iberian peninsula?
Of all of the Greek texts that were translated during the Arab translation movement, Herodotus (the primary written source on those invasions) was not among them. So the extent to which any Islamic expansion during the rise of Islam would be influenced by those invasions is approximately nil.
That being said, the expansions into Iberia pre-dated even the translation movement. Our sources for that invasion of Iberia are quite limited, but I would find it to be extremely implausible that an Arab-led invasion of a largely Berber military force on the extreme periphery of the Islamic world would have had any notion of those invasions. Nor is there any evidence that they did so.