It seems that slaves have always had darker complexions than their subjugators. Is this true?

by luvcheez

It's a sensitive topic, I know. But I can't think of any enslaved group in which the exploited were lighter in complexion than the group enslaving them. American Indians, Africans, Chinese... These all seem to follow a troubling pattern.

XenophonTheAthenian

Racial slavery is a comparatively recent development that did not exist in antiquity or to my knowledge in the Middle Ages. In the ancient world slaves were taken from wherever they happened to be either captured and sold by slavers or taken as captives in war. A slave at Rome was at least as likely to be a fair-skinned Celt or German as he was likely to be a darker-skinned Nubian or Parthian. Not that the stereotype did not necessarily exist--Cicero poked fun at Piso's supposedly servile swarthy complexion--but race and skin color in reality had little to do with slavery in antiquity--Horace's father, an Italian probably enslaved during the Social War, would have been indistinguishable from his Roman masters. And even in the case of jokes like Cicero's the situation is more complicated than simply skin color--Cicero accused Piso of being descended from Syrian slaves, by which Cicero means Greek Syrians, who would not really have looked too different at all

Searocksandtrees

You may be interested in a couple of earlier comments on the Black Sea slave trade where, among other things, a slave could be valued for being "exotic", and "exotic" could mean pale hair/eyes/skin.

edit: this thread may also be of interest