How true is it that Eastern and Western philosophies are generally diametrically opposed?

by [deleted]

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KazuoKuroi

Depends entirely on the philosophy you draw from. However, one of the differences you will see in study of Asian philosophies vs Western philosophies is the lack of Middle Eastern influences for a long enough time to affect it from a socio-religious standpoint. In this case, I divide East/West historically as the East beginning in the Caucasus mountains, stretching all the way down into Persia and separating Persia from Babylon, and moving east-ward.

The biggest difference is that in Eastern philosophy it isn't so much about collectivism, but about man, man's role in relation to society and a recognition of "I don't know everything". Ancient Western philosophy, I define as collectivist in a general sense. It's focused on the manifest of whatever the philosophers home country/culture/religion was, and tends to promote pride in one's beliefs and culture. This often, seems to lead to closed mindedness.

One thing you'll notice is when studying Asiatic history, Asia was often just as violent and politically unstable as the West, but the focus was less on annihilation of the losing states, and as a result, amalgamations of philosophy and religion formed whenever states clashed, whatever the outcome. Cyrus the Great of Persia is the only non-Jew to be called a saviour of the Jewish people, for example, for his treatment after the conquest of the Levant of the Jews is praised repeatedly in Jewish sources.

Compare that to the Greek battle of Troy, in which Troy was wiped off the face of the Earth, or the Punic wars in Rome, where Carthage, the last remnant of Phoenicians was literally burned and leveled three times by Rome.