Yes and no.

From the records left at Kaneš, it would seem that women in the Old Assyrian period enjoyed substantial personal liberties. Men who left their homes in the Assyria heartland for economic opportunities in Anatolia entrusted their businesses with their wives (by times one at each home!) and the textual record indicates that many of these women were tenacious business and life partners, unafraid to criticize their husbands for poor business tactics or nag them for failing to live up to promises. Likewise, these letters also demonstrate that the wives directly dealt with the individuals who transported the goods from Assyria into Anatolia and generally acted as their husbands' representatives in the capital. This seems to testify to the fact that, by and large, the seclusion of women was not something inherent to Assyrian culture, but rather an import or the result of substantial cultural upheaval.

This change seems to have occurred by the time of the Middle Assyrian period. Within the tablet I have linked, law 40 indicates that "wives of men or widows, or Assyrian women, shall not go into the street without a veil." That said, the law also stipulates that some women are strictly forbidden to veil. Prostitutes and female slaves are expressly named as classes of women who would be punished for veiling.

In all, this means that the practice of veiling was not necessarily influenced by the sex of the individual in question-- rather it seems that the social stature and ethnicity of the woman was the deciding factor. This is at odds with nation-states currently governed according to Islam such as Saudi Arabia, where all women regardless of social standing, religion or ethnicity are legally required to veil. Moreover, aside from veiling, relatively few women's rights were infringed upon through the Neo-Assyrian period. Further academic research into the exact reasons behind veiling in the Middle Assyrian period is therefore necessary to determine how alike these practices were to modern Islam.